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John Chapter Six
What Does It Really Say?



"And behold, thou shalt be dumb and unable to speak until the day when these things come to pass, BECAUSE THOU HAST NOT BELIEVED MY WORDS, WHICH WILL BE FULFILLED IN THEIR PROPER TIME." Luke 1:20.


Saint John, New Testament, Chapter Six...

This chapter is so important in explaining the "true presence" of Jesus Christ in the Holy Eucharist. Following is a verse by verse explanation. If you will read the whole chapter, you will not find any verse to indicate Jesus was speaking figuratively, or in parables. He was speaking literally as the context of the chapter plainly shows.
One of the basic rules of Bible interpretation is, if something is said only once in Scripture, it might be taken figuratively, but if it is repeated three times, it is to be taken literally. Jesus repeated His message in John Chapter six, nine different ways, or nine times.


The key verses are indicated here...


There you have it. In verses 33,35,47,48,50,51,53,55, and 56, Jesus said it is literal what I am telling you. In verses 41,43,52,60, and 64, the Jews doubt, and grumble, and murmur, and in verse 66, they, and many others to this day, walked away from Him and never came back. Did He call them back to say this was only a parable, and explain the meaning of it to them, as he had explained many other parables? No, for in verse 67, He would have let them ALL go, had they all not believed.


Yet Simon Peter, in verse 69 said, "We believe...". I believe. The Catholic Church believes. Why don't you believe? Show me, in John chapter six, where it says Jesus did not speak literally, but figuratively, or in parables?
Show me another group of verses in Scripture in which the whole context is figurative, and yet one verse in the middle (as in vs 63 in John 6) is to be taken literally?
Doing that goes against the rules of proper Bible interpretation. We do not attempt to 'twist' the Bible to conform to our teaching, but rather, we conform our teaching to the correct interpretation of the Bible.
Are you one of those in John 6:66, who walked away from Him because you refused to believe what He had said, or are you with Simon Peter when he said in verse 69, "We believe..."?


Why do non-Catholics take almost the whole Bible literally, but when it comes to John chapter 6, they insist it is figurative, when it does not say that it is?


Remember, when non-Catholics say John 6 is figurative, then they have to show that Mt 26:26, Mk 14:22,
and Lk 22:19, are also, where Jesus again said, "This IS My Body."
Then show them 1Cor 11:24, where Paul repeated the words of Christ. 

Finally, when non-Catholics say, "It is only a symbol", that is true, that is, for them it is true. For you see, they have no valid priesthood to call down "the Word" with their word.
Catholics have the valid priesthood which has been handed down through the ages by the"laying on of hands" in an unbroken line, for almost 2000 years from generation to generation, and dating to the Last Supper when Jesus Christ said, "This IS my body which is being given for you; do this in remembrance of me".
Luke 22:19
However, non-Catholics have no right, and no authority whatsoever to say:
"It is only a symbol" for Catholics as well.

Please go to "Body and Soul" for more insights into why the Holy Eucharist cannot possibly be a symbolic gesture.


Supporting verses: Ex 24:8, Psa 78:20,27, Ez 39:17-18, Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, Lk 22:19-20, Jn 6:all,
1Cor 5:8,10:16,11:23-30, Heb 10:20.


©
Compiled by Bob Stanley, 1997
Updated December 11, 2001 
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